For several years I had the privilege of serving as a hospice chaplain. Hospice is a program that provides comfort and care to those who are facing death by attending to their medical, emotional, and spiritual needs. One of our hospice nurses was also a member of the local Chevra Kadisha or “Holy Society,” a group of devout and observant Jews who volunteer to provide the important service of Taharah or “Purification” for recently deceased Jews. This ministry consists of lovingly, carefully, and properly preparing the bodies of Jews for burial. One day she gave a presentation to our hospice
staff on how this was done.
She explained the many prayers and scripture readings, the careful washing and grooming of the body, followed by the purification of the cleaned body with pure water, and the loving care given to dressing the deceased in white linen. We had no idea that so much work was involved in the process. At the end, somebody asked her, “Why do yougo through all of that?” Lowering her head, she quietly and reverently said, “To prepare them for the resurrection.”
Even though she never used the word baptism, there was something about how she described the process of cleansing in water, coupled with her final comment, that suggested a Scripture passage that had puzzled me for many years. I began to wonder if this could somehow be the key to unlocking that puzzle.
In 1 Corinthians, chapter 15, the Apostle Paul presents the Resurrection of Jesus Christ as one of the most important doctrines of Christianity: the one truth upon which all other Christian life and hope depend (vs. 1-11). He contends that if the dead are not raised, then neither has Christ been raised, concluding that, in that case, we would still be lost in sin, without hope, and to be greatly pitied (vs.12-19). Paul boldly proclaims that Christ has indeed been raised from the dead and will reign triumphant, even over death (vs. 20-28). He then asks several rhetorical questions starting with this perplexing passage: “Now if there is no resurrection, what will those do who are baptized for the dead? If the dead are not raised at all, why are people baptized for them?” (vs. 29)
As has been noted by many Biblical commentators, dozens of interpretations of this verse have been offered without any clear consensus as to what Paul means by it. Most scholars refuse to go beyond cautious speculation and humbly suggest that there is no easy answer to understanding this passage. For example:
- Concerning this expression, of which some thirty different explanations are given, it is best to admit frankly that we lack the facts for a decisive interpretation. None of the explanations proposed are free from objection. Paul is evidently alluding to a usage familiar to his readers.[i]
Most attempts to explain 1 Corinthians 15:29 (hereafter referred to simply as “15:29”) suppose that Paul is referring to some type of vicarious or proxy baptism, where someone is baptized on behalf of omeone else. Other explanations suggest that he is talking about regular Christian baptism understood metaphorically (such as dying to sin); done in a particular way (in a graveyard); done out of a certain motivation (to honor a dead friend or relative); or done simply as a witness to the hope of life after death. All these explanations are without any biblical or historical foundation, amounting only to fruitless speculation. For this reason, they offer only confusion and frustration for those who want to
understand this passage.
This is particularly true of the notion of vicarious baptism. While some early church fathers, such as Tertullian and Chrysostom, mentioned it as a heretical practice in their time, they had no firsthand knowledge of it being done. In fact, there is no biblical nor direct historical witness to any such teaching or practice by the Christian church at any time or any place.[ii]
So then, is there another possible explanation? Was there some other “baptismal” practice known to exist in the first century (and even earlier), that Paul would have known about and even approved of? Would such an explanation provide us with the context necessary to clearly understand what Paul is saying in 15:29?
To answer these questions, it’s important to consider three issues: the meaning and usage of the word baptism, the historical and cultural context of 15:29, and the challenge of translating the passage.
[i] Marvin Vincent, Word Studies in the New Testament (1887), commenting on 15:29
[ii] Two possible objections may be raised to this claim: 1.) That 15:29 itself teaches the doctrine of vicarious baptism, and 2.) that the Church of Jesus Christ of Latter-Day Saints (LDS) engages in this practice. However, 15:29 is not a doctrinal statement and provides no clear teaching about baptism. Additionally, the LDS church does not claim to base its practice of proxy baptism on this passage but on a revelation “given” to Joseph Smith in 1840.
Copyright © 2022, 2024, Robert D. Claiborne
